bartleby929
Senior Member
- Joined
- Apr 27, 2011
- Messages
- 108
- Reaction score
- 5
If a business has been doing...business...for 7 years, they charge for US shipping, should reasonably know that the customer is based in the United States, can they charge VAT anyway with a single term/clause? Moreover, my actual invoice doesn't have the VAT charge but my price purchased online has the VAT charge.
I'm asking about Caliroots. I emailed them and they emailed me. Then I spent all day at work looking at EU VAT laws and it was like reading a puzzle. From my nightmarish reading, I figured: this is distance shipping and if seller should have reason to know buyer is an individual in a place that doesn't do VAT and the thing can be done within 3 months, they can't charge VAT.
It would seem weird that they can circumvent this regulation/memo whatever it is with a single sentence. Obviously I'm making a BFD out of it but I just think it's messed up.
I'm asking about Caliroots. I emailed them and they emailed me. Then I spent all day at work looking at EU VAT laws and it was like reading a puzzle. From my nightmarish reading, I figured: this is distance shipping and if seller should have reason to know buyer is an individual in a place that doesn't do VAT and the thing can be done within 3 months, they can't charge VAT.
It would seem weird that they can circumvent this regulation/memo whatever it is with a single sentence. Obviously I'm making a BFD out of it but I just think it's messed up.